Divorce Advice for Men | Fathers Rights Divorce | Child Custody

By Sara Pitcher

Cordell & Cordell Divorce Lawyer

Dissipation is defined by the Black’s Law Dictionary as: "The use of an asset for an illegal or inequitable purpose, such as a spouse’s use of community property for personal benefit when a divorce is imminent."

Some jurisdictions automatically impose a temporary restraining order on finances, which prohibit dissipating, selling, transferring, encumbering, or wasting of marital assets during the pendency of the divorce.

This restriction allows the parties to spend money or manage their property as necessary. However, it prohibits the wasting, destruction, or getting rid of marital property without the approval of the other party.

Question:

Are my separate checking and savings accounts a marital asset if I am the only one who has contributed to them?

My wife also has her own bank accounts that we have always kept separate so how are these divided in a divorce?

Question:

My ex-wife has not paid any of the settlement money I was awarded in our divorce decree.

She also has continued to not contribute any financial support to me while I am still paying the mortgage on the home where she is living.

How can I get my ex-wife to pay me the money I was awarded in our divorce settlement?

Question:

My wife only lived with me at a house I owned prior to our marriage for a short period of time before we separated and now we are getting divorced.

Can she receive half of my home's value even if it was purchased before marriage and she only lived there for a short period?

Question:

I'm a medical student and frequently hear that if you are married during medical school and residency training, then your spouse is entitled to half of your future income even after divorce.

I have even heard that even if you cohabit during medical school and training, then your partner can potentially sue and have the living situation ruled as a de facto marriage, with the aforementioned splitting of salary resulting.

Is there any legal precedent for a ruling like this?