My divorce question is about the right of first refusal clause.
My ex-wife now wants to take our children on those nights when I work by stating she is using her first right of refusal. However, in our divorce decree, there is no such claim about a right of first refusal clause.
She has never tried to exercise a right of first refusal before, and my work hours have not changed since our divorce so she knew I would be gone some of those nights I have overnight visitation.
Will my ex-wife be able to exercise the right of first refusal even though the decree does not state anything about that right?